I pose this as a question, not a criticism.
If a client is investing £100,000 and the adviser charge is 2 per cent, is it this modest percentage because that is somehow more acceptable to the client than describing it as £2,000?
And are you really an independent financial adviser? Will you still charge that £2,000 even if the advice is not to buy a product? Or are you charging as a percentage only if the client buys a product because really you - not the client - would like it to still be commission?
For those of a delicate nature, like the other secret IFA, let me repeat I am only asking questions. I’m not having a go, honest.